Microbiology
Exam
IV
Name ______________
Directions: Multiple choice. Circle the
correct
answer. Total of 42 points.
1. All of the following statements regarding
Treponema pallidum are
true EXCEPT ?
a. shape - spirochete
b. Gram
reaction - gram-nonreactive
c. culture - Thayer Martin
Selective agar
d. transmission - sexually
e. transmission - open lesion on
hands
2. All of the following are reportable sexually
transmitted diseases EXCEPT
?
a. Gonorrhea.
b. AIDS.
c. Trichomoniasis.
d. Syphilis.
e. All of the above.
3. Most cases of complicated cystitis are caused
by
a. E. coli.
b. Enterococcus.
c. Proteus.
d. Klebsiella.
e. Pseudomonas.
4. Which of the following is not a complication
of
gonorrhea?
a. Sterility
b. Pelvic inflammatory
disease
c. Arthritis
d. Meningitis
e. None of these
5. Which of the following pairs are mismatched
for syphilis ?
a. incubation period - three
weeks
b. chancre - indolent
c. antibodies produced, no
outward signs -
primary phase
d. flu like syndrome - secondary
phase
e. None of these
6. Which of the following statements regarding
neonatal syphilis is incorrect
?
a. Transmitted through placenta
during 5th
month.
b. Early lesions resemble
chancres.
c. 25% of the cases die in
utero.
d. Late lesions resemble
gummas.
e. None of these
7. Which of the following statements regarding
the Rapid Plasma Reagin test for
syphilis is
TRUE ?
a. Uses the Reiter strain of T.
pallidum.
b. Uses the Nichol strain of T.
pallidum.
c. Almost no biologically false
positives.
d. Reacts with Wasserman
antibodies of
patient.
e. None of the above.
Exam IV, Page 2
8. All of the following are symptoms of
gonorrhea
in males EXCEPT ?
a. dysuria
b. purulent discharge
c. urethral stricture
d. chronic prostatitis
e. salpingitis
9. A major cause of septic arthritis in adults
is ?
a. Neisseria
gonorrhoeae
b. Treponema pallidum
c. Chlamydia trachomatis
d. Herpes simplex
e. None of these.
10. Most cases of posttransfusion hepatitis are
caused by
a. Hepatitis A
virus.
b. Hepatitis B
virus.
c. Hepatitis C
virus.
d. All of these.
e. None of these; modern
screening
techniques have eliminated
posttransfusion hepatitis.
11. All of the following statements about
salmonellosis are
true except
a. It is a food
infection disease.
b. It requires a
small infective dose.
c. main symptoms
involve GI disturbance
and septicemia
d. results in about
two million food
poisonings annually
e. It is often
associated with poultry
products.
12. Which of the following does not produce a
gastrointestinal
disease that includes
production of an
exotoxin?
a. Escherichia coli
b. Vibrio cholerae
c. Shigella
dysenteriae
d. Salmonella
typhimurium
e. all of the above
produce exotoxins
13. Treatment of gonorrhea includes all of the
following EXCEPT ?
a. ampicillin - for
penicillin sensitive strains.
b. ceftriaxone -
effective against incubating
syphilis.
c. spectinomycin
- prevents
post-gonococcal
urethritis.
d. ceftriaxone -
pharyngeal gonorrhea.
e. All of these are
correct treatments.
14. Chemoprophylaxis for meningitis caused by
Neisseria includes ?
a. Penicillin G.
b. chloramphenicol.
c. streptomycin.
d. rifampin.
e. both a and b are
correct.
Exam IV, Page 3
15. Which of the following is diagnosed by the
presence of
flagellates in the patient's
feces?
a. Balantidiasis
b. Giardiasis
c. Trichinosis
d. Trypanosoma
e. Plasmodium
16. Which of the following causes an acute
infection in humans,
which is transmitted by
cats?
a. Giardia lamblia
b. Balantidium coli
c. Trypanosoma
d. Toxoplasma
gondii
e. Entamoeba
histolytica
17. Which of the following pairs regarding
Helminth
infestations is incorrect?
a. Platyhelminths
- roundworm.
b. Nematodes -
roundworm.
c. Tapeworm -
flatworm.
d. Pinworm -
roundworm.
e. Fluke - flatworm.
18. The most common cause of traveler's
diarrhea is probably
a. Shigella spp.
b. Salmonella typhi.
c. Giardia lamblia.
d. Escherichia
coli.
e. Entamoeba
coli.
19. Which of the following can be transferred
from an infected
mother to her fetus
across the placenta?
a. Mumps
b.
Cytomegalovirus inclusion disease
c. Infectious
hepatitis
d. Typhoid fever
e. Enteroinvasive E.
coli
20. Treatment of superficial candidiasis
includes?
a. chloroquine
b. metronidazole
c. tetracycline
d. griseofulvin
(oral)
e. miconazole
(topical), nystatin (oral)
21. Which of the following causes an infection
of
the liver?
a. Salmonella
b. Shigella
c. Hepatitis A
virus
d. Vibrio
e. Balantidium
22. "Rice water stools" are
characteristic of
a. Salmonellosis.
b. Cholera.
c. Bacillary
dysentery.
d. Amoebic
dysentery.
e. Tapeworm
infestation.
Exam IV, Page 4
23. Most gastrointestinal infections are treated
with
a. Antitoxin.
b. Penicillin.
c. Fluid and
electrolytes.
d. Quinacrine.
e. None of these.
24. Which of the following is treated with
tetracycline?
a. Staphylococcal
food poisoning
b. Vibrio
cholerae
c. Infectious
hepatitis
d. Travelers
diarrhea
e. Shigellosis
25. All of the following are gram-negative rods
that cause
gastroenteritis except
a. Pseudomonas.
b. Escherichia.
c. Salmonella.
d. Shigella.
e. Vibrio.
26. Systemic mycoses include all of the
following
except?
a. Ringworm.
b. Blastomyces.
c.
Coccidioidomycosis.
d. Histoplasmosis.
e. Cryptococcosis.
27. Treatment of Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Urinary Tract
Infections includes?
a. Tetracycline
b. Gentamicin
c. Carbenicillin
d. Gentamicin with
carbenicillin
e. Erythromycin
28. A primary symptom of this disease is a
spasmodic coughing
accompanied by a rapid
intake of air.
Complications include a
collapsed lung and
convulsions. This disease
is?
a.
Pertussis.
b. Legionnaire's
disease.
c. Pseudomonas
pyoderma.
d. Contagious
meningitis.
e. Hepatitis E
virus.
29. Which of the following is not a
characteristic
of P.
aeruginosa?
a. Gram-positive
rods
b. Aerobic
c. Green
pigment
d. Resistant to
antibiotics
e. None of
these
30. Which of these is not caused by herpes
virus?
a. Chickenpox
b. Shingles
c. fever
blisters
d. Hepatitis
C
e. None of
these
Exam IV, Page 5
31. Thrush and vaginitis are caused by
a. Herpes
virus.
b. Chlamydia
trachomatis.
c. Candida
albicans.
d. Staphylococcus
aureus.
e. Streptococcus
pyogenes.
32. The greatest single cause of ophthalmia
neonatorum in the
world is
a. Neisseria
gonorrhoeae.
b. Pseudomonas
aeruginosa.
c. Chlamydia
trachomatis.
d. Haemophilus
influenzae.
e. Haemophilus
aegyptius.
33. All of the following are true regarding
Legionnaire's
disease EXCEPT?
a. Transmission is
by droplet.
b. An atypical
pneumonia.
c. A gram negative
rod.
d. Air conditioning
units implicated in
infection.
e. Prevention is
by DPT vaccine.
34. The most common etiology for shigellosis in
the northern USA
is?
a. Shigella
enteriditis.
b. Shigella
flexneri.
c. Shigella
sonnei.
d. Shigella
dysenteriae.
e. Shigella coli
35. Transmission of shigellosis is primarily
by?
a. poultry such as
chickens.
b. pet
turtles.
c. cats spreading it
to humans.
d. mice spreading it
to humans.
e. humans to
humans.
36. The etiologic agent of chickenpox.
a. human herpes
virus 1
b. human herpes
virus 2
c. human herpes
virus 3
d. human herpes
virus 4
e. human herpes
virus 5
37. Probably the most common cause of infantile
diarrhea is?
a.
Enteropathogenic E. coli
b. Enterotoxigenic
E. coli
c. Enteroinvasive E.
coli
d. Shigella
dysenteriae
e. Proteus
mirabilis
38. This organism ranks second to E. coli as a
cause of
uncomplicated cystitis.
a. Shigella
b. Salmonella
c. Proteus
d. Vibrio
e. Pseudomonas
Exam IV, Page 6
39. The etiologic agent of fever blisters.
a. human herpes
virus 1
b. human herpes
virus 2
c. human herpes
virus 3
d. human herpes
virus 4
e. human herpes
virus 5
40. This organism is a common cause of
nosocomial
pneumonia.
a. Streptococcus
pneumoniae
b. Mycoplasma
pneumoniae
c. Haemophilus
influenzae
d. Klebsiella
pneumoniae
e. Proteus mirabilis
41. This antibiotic is used for UTI caused by
Proteus mirabilis.
a. Ampicillin.
b. Cefotaxime.
c. Penicillin.
d. Streptomycin.
e. Cefotaxime with
Penicillin.
42.The major cause of meningitis in children
under two years of age is?
a. Streptococcus
pneumoniae
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Streptococcus pyogenes
d. Haemophilus
influenzae
e. Yersinia pestis
Exam IV, Page 7
Part B Directions: Essay. Answer the questions
in the space provided. Total of 58 points.
1. Discuss the possible outcomes for the late
latent phase of syphilis ?
(6 pts)
25%-completely cured. No symptoms, no Abs.
25%-remain in late latent phase for life. Slow destruction of tissues.
50%-enter tertiary phase. Gummas. Rapid destruction of tissues.
2. What is the recommended treatment for
syphilis ? (2 pts)
benzathine Pen G
3. Explain the difference between healthy and
convalescent carriers. (4
pts)
healthy-no symptoms but shedding organism.
convalescent-no longer has disease but still shedding organaism.
4. What two factors are associated with
Pseudomonas Urinary Tract
Infections?
(2 pts)
nosocomial and instrumentation
5. What is the better choice in prevention of
ophthalmia neonatorum,
silver nitrate or
erythromycin? Explain
giving a specific
example. (4 pts)
erythromycin, since silver nitrate not effective against Chlamydia trachomatis
6.What treatment is recommended for
Shigellosis? (2 pts)
fluid and electrolytes
sulfisoxazole
7. Define "uncomplicated" cystitis. (2
pts)
no predisposing factors such as obstruction, antibiotics, instrumentation
8. Compare treatments for meningitis and acute
bacterial epiglottitis
caused by Haemophilus
influenzae and explain the
differences.
(5 pts)
meningitis-ampicillin and chloramphenicol
epiglotitis-ampicillin and trachea tube to avoid chloramphenicol
9. What is the drug of choice for shingles?
(2 pts)
acyclovir
10. Give at least two reasons why genital herpes
is a serious
infection. (4 pts)
cervical cancer
STORCH
11. Two functions of the capsid of a virus are?
(4
pts)
protection
recognition of host cells
12. List the major opportunistic bacterial,
fungal,
protozoan, and viral
diseases used to define
AIDS. (4 pts)
Mycobacterium avium complex
Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Toxoplasmosis
Herpes simplex and herpes zoster
Exam IV, Page 8
13. Bacteriophages have what basic shape? (2
pts)
T or binal shape
14. For hepatitis A and hepatitis B, compare the
following factors:
synonym, transmission, is
it associated with
hepatoma? (6 pts)
infectious-feces-no
serum-blood-yes
15. True or False? One common characteristic of
Herpes viruses
is that once the infection is
over, you are
usually completely cured. (2
pts)
False
16. What are retroviruses, and how are they
different from
other viruses? (2 pts)
single-stranded RNA viruses. They have oncogenic abilities
17. This Rickettsial disease is louse-borne and
is
associated
with poor personal hygiene. (2
pts)
epidemic typhus
18. Differentiate between HIV infection, HIV
disease, and AIDS.(3
pts)
HIV infection-mononucleosis-like symptoms
HIV disease-incubation period 2 to 15 years, with fever, swollen lymph glands, fatigue,
diarrhea, weight loss, opportunistic infections.
AIDS-severe immunodeficiency, life-threatening opportunistic infections, persistent fever,
unusual cancers, chronically swollen lymph nodes, weight loss, diarrhea.
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